ok easy question that came up after an intense match. So hypotheticaly, lets say I play a foundation( i dont think it matters which), reverse flayer, and, GLR. also, assume that ready for anything is already in play

Now my question is, am i able to use ready for anythings' first e to boost GLR up. The ruling between most of my friends was that since there was a foundation in the card pool, Ready for anything could be used. However, a friend was arguing that since the foundation wasnt directly preceding the attack, Ready for anything cant be used.

Also, i have another, more complicated, question about reverse flayer's E. To make it simple assume the same cards as above have been played and that I couldn't use ready for anything's E on GLR. Now the way i think this works is that Reverse flayer would go off first, giving this attack 10 dmg and then use GLR's E to destroy an asset. Lets say that this asset had a control of 4. Now that would be 14 damage. There isnt a way for me to have glr's abiltiy go off first , giving it 9 dmg, and then have reverse flayers ability go off, giving it a total of 19 damage instead.

the last line should read "There isnt a way for me to have glr's abiltiy go off first , giving it 9 dmg, and then have reverse flayers ability go off, giving it a total of 19 damage instead, right?"

your friend was right, preceeding is taken to be directly preceeding. and reverse flayers effect goes off when the next attack is played, before the enhance step.

Ziephnir said:

**Stamp**

Wait, when did they change Ready for Anything? I thought when everyone was making a big deal about it was when they made the ruling that there just had to be a foundation in the card pool, it didn't have to be directly before it (becuase that's not what the card actualy says).

JDub said:

Incorrect, the ruling given when it came out and when it was brought up again later was as stated above. And yes, it's what the card says. You're reading it wrong.

Tagrineth said:

I remember the ruling given was that because it didn't say directly or immediately before (which it doesn't like I said, YOUR reading it wrong) it just says "if this attack is preceded by a non-attack card". So the ruling was that there just had to be a foundation in the card pool to use Ready For Anything.

I'm not trying to say the new ruling is wrong or anything I just didn't know it changed. But apparently no one even remembers that it was ruled that way, remember when everyone was bitching about it and how stupid the ruling was and made a big deal about it (even though it was a jank card that no one played)? Not like we can go back and look at the old rulings or anything seeing as we get a new forum about every year.

J,

It'll be covered in the rules. It'll be there in detail, so no confusion.

JDub said:

No one remembers it was ruled that way because it wasn't ruled that way.