Hello,

When an Overlord rolls Surges, can they be used for anything other than Threat Tokens?

Thanks in advance for the answers, I can't seem to get the "search" function to work ...

SJ

Not normally. The Bash and Dark Prayer abilities (from the Altar of Despair expansion) provide other uses for surges.

Also, Dark Charm is an exception - you can use them there as if you were the player.

Cymbaline said:

Alternately, the OL does still have the option to spend them for threat as normal, right?

That seems to be consistent with the most recent ruling on the subject...

Q: Under what circumstances can the overlord receive threat for rolling surges on an attack roll?
A: The overlord may spend two surges on each attack roll to gain one threat. He may do this on any attack that hits a hero . This represents a change from previous FAQ rulings on this subject.

(FAQ p.7) Doesn't say the attack has to be made by a monster. But I don't think FFG has ever said anything specifically intended to address that question.

I'm just not sure because the JitD rules say " for every two surges the overlord player rolls during an attack ", and I can't really tell if the Dark Charm attack is made by the overlord player or the hero player. (Who gets to roll the dice?) The card says "the hero must make one attack that you declare." Not "the hero player", just "the hero". But why would a plastic figurine need to be compelled to make an attack? ("The hero must make", not "the hero makes.") This reasoning led me to believe (actually to assume, without considering there was any alternative) that the hero player makes the attack (and rolls the dice); the OL just tells him what to do.

On the other hand, the FAQ ruling says "The overlord controls the hero for that attack," which seems pretty straightforward.

I'm not trying to get caught up in wondering something as petty as who actually rolls the dice; that's just a convenient way to think about it. What I am wondering is if the Hero player is compelled to make a particular attack, or if the Overlord player makes the attack himself. The latter would seem to allow surges to be spent for threat, but the former would not.

Thematically, I think either option makes sense. And this seems a rare enough occurrence as to be inconsequential for game balance, so it could probably go either way. Just wondering if anyone else has any brilliant insights or if I should just arbitrarily choose a rule with my group and add this situation to the "ambiguous" pile.

Well, there's Aim:

"Play immediately after declaring an attack but before rolling any dice. Your attack is an aimed attack."

Which the FAQ says can be used on a Dark Charm attack:

"The overlord controls the hero for that attack, including the hero’s use of surges and power dice. The overlord may also play cards such as 'Aim' with the attack." (FAQ p.7)

That suggests to me that the overlord is making the attack.

I suppose it really is that simple and I'm just over-thinking things, as I'm sometimes apt to do. Especially on a Friday afternoon when I'm looking for anything to focus on other than work and 5:00 can't get here fast enough...