Ok, this is a very stupid question, but I just couldn't find the answer in neither of the books, nor in the threads of the forum, so please excuse me and help me out with it. Here goes:

When a wizard casts a spell that would damage an enemy, is the damage reduced by the enemy's toughness and armour soak value?

The To+Soak reduction is mentioned in the books only for combat damage situations (melee and ranged attacks)... so I'm really not sure if magic damage is meant to be soaked. My guess is that it is, and that's how we palyed it so far but I still need a confirmation.

Thanks!!

We've played it with magic being soaked (otherwise magic becomes way overpowered in my opinion). I think all combat damage (whatever the source) is subject to soak unless otherwise noted (some cards state that soak is not applied). Also for some damage I would perhaps not add armor (e.g., fire damage), but toughness soak should still apply in all combat situations.

I'm pretty sure that soak is not meant to be applied for effects doing wounds directly (chaos star results on some cards), that would just be silly.

I follow the same logic as you, To+soak should be applied to any damage that is not "inflict X wounds" (unless soak value seems irrelevant). It makes sense that a "tough" guy will take less wounds from a magic attack. I was wondering is that stated somewhere in the rules or did they miss it? I just couldn't find it.

Magic damage is the same as regular damage. All soak (TO+armour) applies. There are some spells that can ignore armor or completely ignore all soak. Those spells would not make sense if magig ignored armor or soak.

Some spells can't be soaked like "Burning Blood". They just inflict a number of automatic wounds.