Well, the idea (which I'm clearly having trouble explaining) is that you always hold one extra reroll "in reserve". So if you have 3 rerolls, you only roll 3 dice at once (your initial roll, plus 2 rerolls). If you don't have a hit/crit result, you'll always use your last "reserve" reroll - so the order of the previous rolls doesn't matter. If you got a hit/crit in your initial batch, you would have stopped so the order of your rolls doesn't matter.
I do understand that adhering to this sequence of events is the only way this would work....
I'm not following. What if you rolled a hit and a crit - which one is the original roll (the one you'd have kept)?
Neither. He's going to reroll it again with his final reroll ability because it wasn't a Hit/Crit.
Huh? I said what if he rolls both - which one did he roll first and re-roll? Do you mean he only keeps it if it's both on one die?
He has 2 bomber commands, so he has 2 re-rolls. He rolls 2 dice. This represents his initial roll + his first reroll. If neither die lands on Hit/Crit, he rerolls one of the die with his 2nd reroll and accepts that result as final. What he's doing makes sense.
It's statistically sound, but not something I would allow. It just causes too much confusion and opportunities for loose play to accidentally create poor situations.
Edit: Note that this scheme is not statistically sound if attacking with anything that has more than 1 die. A b-wing or a Skaarsgaard bomber can not do this.
Edited by Valca