If the Barbarian casts a Spell it has gone from his character, the Spell can be negated by Counterspell. His ability prevents Spells he holds from being affected by other players Spells, fact.
Does not say "spells he is holding" in the FAQ just says "spells", surely the Barbarian spell he is casting is still his spell - he's the caster I do not see how it can not be his when its cast? hardly a "Fact".
I do agree that the FAQ is super vague on this issue though.
Seriously? If the Barbarian has Spells (or Objects & Followers) in his possession, they cannot be targeted by another players Spells; this is determined by the special ability of the Barbarian. However, if the Barbarian casts a Spell it is no longer in his possession and can be negated by a Counterspell. This is how it should be handled. You are trying to twist the FAQ to fit your own opinion, whereas I am not...
Zeeech settle down man..
I do not see it as "twisting" the FAQ, just going by what the FAQ and the barbarian card says. Why its it the Spells in his possession? and if so why didn't the barbarian card just say "Spells in his possession" or even "Cannot cast spells" if that was the case.
So like I said before is it by design or text error? Who knows.
You can argue the FAQ was meant to mean "in the characters possession" but I could then argue that the barbarian card was worded the way it was to allow it. Given no other hard ruling it can go either way.
But I do see your point totally.