Hi
Yesterday I played a game with 3 friends that became extremely hostile in the 5th round because of this scheme card, we spent (and I am not joking) 30+ minutes discussing this quite loudly at some points. Now onto the debate.
The Ork scheme "Mob up!" states: "instead of revealing an order during the operations phase, you may discard this card to resolve an advance order [...]"
Since the wording is "instead of" 3 of us believed that that ment that the player with the "Mob up!" scheme must have an order token left on the board for it to be used "instead of" flipping and executing an order token. Without any order tokens left on the board the rulebook says (page 9 bottom left & top right):
- The active player must choose one of his order tokens that is on the top of a stack
- The active player flips the chosen token faceup and then resolves the order's effect
- (5) If a player cannot resolve an order, he skips his turn
- (5a) A player cannot resolve an order if he has no order tokens on the game board[...]
There are more things in that section, but i believe them irrelevant to the question.
Basically our side of the argument was as follows: Since player 4 does not have any orders left on the board, he fails point #1 because he has no order to choose, he fails point #2 because he has no order to flip, he fails point #5a because he has no order tokens on the game board, and thus must skip as according to point #5 because he has no orders to resolve. Therefore he cannot play "mob up!" because of a dual failure of not getting any more turns in the operations phase (which requires an order token on the board) and because there is no order to play the scheme "instead of", as the card requires.
Were the 3 of us correct? if not which rule have we missed?
PS. we did of course let him play it, but insisted that any further uses of the scheme must at the latest be on his 4th order execution when he still has an order token on the board & something to play the scheme instead of.
Edited by Popperlicious