Hi everyone. I had a question to which I couldn't find the answer. Hopefully you guys can help me: Last night we played a game of Descent in which I played the Overlord. One of the hero's (the necromancer) ran his skeleton familiar into a monster group and used Corpse Blast. He then rolled for the attack, which resulted in a miss (the X on the blue die). Now, here I stated that his attack resolved (the skeleton exploded, but the blast missed my monsters) and therefor the skeleton should be removed. However all the heroes kept saying that the attack had not resolved because a miss was roled. In the end we let the skeleton live. Did we do the correct thing of was I just fooled?
When is an taack resolved?
The player rolled an "attack roll" The attack was resolved with no damage because of a miss.
There are a few other skills like Corpse Blast that let the player use his familiar to make some kind of enhanced attack, they usually require the familiar be removed after the attack is resolved, same as in this case.
If the players had something to allow them to reroll the attack die, then it would not have been resolved until they used that reroll, or decided not to.
Alarmed is correct. The attack resolved, it just resolved as a miss. In non-miss cases, attacks resolve after all damage is dealt.
Edited by ZaltyreThe attack resolves even if it misses. Then all effects that occur after an attack resolves takes place. So yes, the skeleton dies in vain.
But guys! If the skeleton misses and dies then the Necromancer can NEVER replace it! He'll have to play the rest of the campaign without his familiar and he'll be horribly underpowered because of it! It's not like he can just summon up a new skeleton next turn, like nothing happened!
Oh wait...
It's amazing what hero players deem as unfair. Meanwhile, they're shredding up my monsters like nothing.
Thanks for the feedback guys! . They tricked me this time, but: