I see your point which is why I brought up Rulebook pg 10 Combat phase steps 1-7. I understand steps 1-7 as a discrete attack and Vader number 1 is absolutely intimately tied to part of that attack- of course the "after" part. So, I don't see how it is unreasonable to interpret resolving Vader with this attack is a prerequisite to starting a new attack with "declare target".
It's not "unreasonable", and it is what was intended - as the e-mails have now confirmed.
However, as Buhalin, others and I have been explaining for 4 pages now, there is nothing in the rules as written that requires "resolving Vader with this attack [before] starting a new attack".
Buhalin put it nicely:
But Gunner making a full attack as one of those effects leads to a lot of head-scratching weirdness that people either don't like or feel doesn't make sense.
You're just one of the people that was left scratching their head and feeling it doesn't make sens.
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